• Dearth@lemmy.world
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    7 months ago

    Fun story, in older translations of the bible, this verse is "a man who sleeps with his apprentice must be stoned. "

    But king James’ advisors didn’t want their proclivities deemed immoral by the religious text they were translating for the masses.

    I don’t believe the are any other mentions of homosexuality in any other book of the modern English language Christian bible. AFAIK there aren’t any mentions in the Talmud- which the old testament is roughly based on.

    • Kage520@lemmy.world
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      7 months ago

      I never heard the apprentice translation. Just that it could also be interpreted as many sleeping with “boy”, implying pedophilia.

      • Dearth@lemmy.world
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        7 months ago

        It’s less “child/boy” and more “person I’m responsible for”

        The OG writers of the bible didn’t want people abusing their positions of power. Some modern bible scholars would like to reinforce that it’s “boy” not “ward” in older translations. The cynic in me believes they intentionally focus on that translation because they want to sleep with their parishioners

    • MystikIncarnate@lemmy.ca
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      7 months ago

      I don’t know enough of the text to know these things, so I appreciate it.

      I’m also not going to bother learning it any more than I already do, since it would have no impact on my life, either knowing or not knowing it.

      Considering that, I’m glad I can ask the question and get a good response about it. Thanks.